Re: Grains in the Agrarian diet as the causative factor for diseases of affluence hypothesis is easily debunked.
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Re: Grains in the Agrarian diet as the causative factor for diseases of affluence hypothesis is easily debunked.
| Mr-Natural-Health | 06 Mar 2006 22:11 |
> There are people with intollerances to all nightshades. > Tomatoes are vegitables or fruits and humans have been [quoted text clipped - 3 lines] > like what humans are evolved to eat than are grains. and > still some have nightshade intolerance ... Not for me. I eat all kinds of grains with absolutely no problems.
Tomatoes for me was definitely an acquired taste. It took me a very long time before I could stand the taste of a raw tomato on a sandwich. Me, bite into a juicy whole ripe tomato? You got to be kidding? Never!!! The more a tomato tastes like a piece of cardboard the easier it is for me to tolerate the taste.
I still cannot stand the taste of tomato jucie. It makes me want to puke!!! It is absolutely awful. Thank goodness I like ketchup and tomato sauce.
Just thought that you might want to know that you are wrong.
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| Doug Freyburger | 06 Mar 2006 21:59 |
> In reality, > Hunter-gatherer societies simply cannot support the current world > populations levels. Which has absolutely nothing to do with what's heathly.
> Give up growing grains and people would be starving > to death on a mass scale. Except for that whole reality thing. Growing vegitables works great. Fruit and nuts, too. Besides, grain is for animals anyways so you'd only give up grains if you switch to a vegitarian diet.
> The easiest way to disprove this felicitous hypothesis is to point out > the obvious. In other words, if grains do cause diseases of affluence > then what should have happened over the last 10,000 years? People would be getting diabetes. Oh wait, they do. Especially populations that previously ate diets that were lower glycemic index and switched to grain based foods in the last couple of centuries. Look at reports of native Americans in both the US and Mexico for that. Diabetes is epidemic in many tribes and there are tribes that have one branch on each side of the border with the high grain eating branch having much higher diabetes rates.
So what should have happened in 10K years is some amount of evolution. Sure enough, there is less Celiac, spru, diabetes and such in populations who've been eating grains for more millenia and more of those diseases in populations who recently switched to more grains. You want to eat lots of grain? Get some genetic engineering or pick your selectively bred parents carefully.
> As previously stated, the new world fruit/vegetable called the tomato > has been in the European diet for less than 200 years. Yet, it is [quoted text clipped - 3 lines] > tomatoes? Why do men eat tomatoes in order to protect themselves from > prostatic cancer? There are people with intollerances to all nightshades. Tomatoes are vegitables or fruits and humans have been eating various types of vegitables ever since our ancestors left the trees and various types of fruit for longer than that. Thus tomatoes make a poor example - they are much more like what humans are evolved to eat than are grains. and still some have nightshade intolerance ...
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| Mr-Natural-Health | 04 Mar 2006 11:05 |
This felicitous hypothesis says that grains are the environmental factor specific to agrarian societies that is responsible for diseases of affluence. http://www.pubmedcentral.gov/articlerender.fcgi?tool=pubmed&pubmedid=16336696
The above hyperlink writes about the hunter-gatherer myth. In reality, Hunter-gatherer societies simply cannot support the current world populations levels. Give up growing grains and people would be starving to death on a mass scale.
The easiest way to disprove this felicitous hypothesis is to point out the obvious. In other words, if grains do cause diseases of affluence then what should have happened over the last 10,000 years?
If grains were indeed the causative factor then accordingly as grains in agrarian societies have been in their diet for some 10,000 years these very same agrarian societies should have been suffering from diseases of affluence for the past 10,000 years. This clearly has not been the case. Furthermore, these same diseases of affluence should logically be in a period of decline as man gradually has biologically adapted to grains. Or in other words, the worst case scenario for diseases of affluence would have logically existed some 10,000 years ago when man first started eating grains, rather than today.
Furthermore, throughout these past 10,000 years many agrarian societies existed almost exclusively on grains. Hence, these people would also have logically experienced the worst case scenario for diseases of affluence.
Further, this very same academic paper contradicts the only logical conclusion demaned by this felicitous hypothesis by saying point-blank that "CHD was reportedly rare in developed populations until the early 1900s."
So, what happen in the 1900s? I can tell you. Food science developed and accordingly a sudden surge in the widespread consumption of refined-grain junk food took place. So, if grains are to be blamed for this post 1900 phenomenon then we are clearly talking about refined grains rather than whole-grains. Of course, there are other possibilities too, such as global warming and modern stress.
Something else major happened. Refrigeration was invented and our food distribution system improved tremendously. In reality, modern industrialized civilizations have had in the past 100 years more variety in their agrarian diets than ever before. In reality, more people are eating more meat today than they ever did during the past 10,000 years.
Furthermore, this paper presents only an untested and unproven hypothesis. I have easily proved this stupid hypothesis to be wrong.
As previously stated, the new world fruit/vegetable called the tomato has been in the European diet for less than 200 years. Yet, it is clearly one of the healthiest foods in the human diet. So, the notion that 10,000 years is not long enough for humans to adapt to grains is total nonsense. If you don't believe me, then why are you eating tomatoes? Why do men eat tomatoes in order to protect themselves from prostatic cancer?
Ergo, blaming grains in the Agrarian diet as the causative factor for diseases of affluence hypothesis is total bunk. This theory is actually arguing that diseases of affluence should be at their lowest levels ever in the last 10,000 years of history. Thus, those who are promoting it have mush for brains and are promoting nothing but a fairy tale. Dream on people!!!
Who says so? I do. http://naturalhealthperspective.com/food/whole-grains.html -- John Gohde, Achieving good Nutrition is an Art, NOT a Science!
The nutrition of eating a healthy diet is a biological factor of the mind-body connection. Now, weighing in at 18 web pages, the Nutrition of a Healthy Diet is with more documentation and sharper terminology than ever before. http://naturalhealthperspective.com/food/
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| Mr-Natural-Health | 04 Mar 2006 10:28 |
> This felicitous hypothesis says that grains are the environmental > factor specific to agrarian societies that is responsible for diseases > of affluence. > http://www.pubmedcentral.gov/articlerender.fcgi?tool=pubmed&pubmedid=16336696 The above hyperlink writes about the hunter-gather myth. Hunter-gather societies simply cannot support the current world populations levels. Give up growing grains and people would be starving to death on a mass scale.
> The easiest way to disprove this hypothesis is to point out the > obvious. [quoted text clipped - 8 lines] > of affluence would have logically existed some 10,000 years ago when > man first started eating grains rather than today. Furthermore, throughout these past 10,000 years many agrarian societies existed almost exclusively on grains. Hence, these people would also have logically experienced the most acute levels of these diseases of affluence.
> Further, this very same academic paper contradicts this conclusion by > saying that "CHD was reportedly rare in developed populations until the [quoted text clipped - 6 lines] > grains rather than whole-grains. Of course, there are other > possibilities too, such as global warming and modern stress. Something else major happened. Refrigeration was invented and our food distribution system improved tremendously. Modern industrialized civilizations have had in the past 100 years more variety in their agrarian diets than ever before. In reality more people are eating more meat today than in the past 10,000 years.
> Furthermore, this paper presents only an untested and unproven > hypothesis. I have easily this hypothesis to be wrong. [quoted text clipped - 3 lines] > human diet. So, the notion that 10,000 years is not long enough for > humans to adapt to grains is total nonsense. Ergo, Grains in the Agrarian diet as the causative factor for diseases of affluence hypothesis is total bunk. This theory is actually arguing that diseases of affluence should be at their lowest levels in the last 10,000 years of history. Thus, who are promoting it have mush for brains and are promoting a fairy tale.
> Who says so? I do. > http://naturalhealthperspective.com/food/whole-grains.html [quoted text clipped - 7 lines] > sharper terminology than ever before. > http://naturalhealthperspective.com/food/ |
| Mr-Natural-Health | 04 Mar 2006 02:45 |
This felicitous hypothesis says that grains are the environmental factor specific to agrarian societies that is responsible for diseases of affluence. http://www.pubmedcentral.gov/articlerender.fcgi?tool=pubmed&pubmedid=16336696
The easiest way to disprove this hypothesis is to point out the obvious.
If grains were indeed the causative factor then accordingly as grains in agrarian societies have been in their diet for some 10,000 years than these very same agrarian societies should have been suffering from diseases of affluence for the past 10,000 years. This clearly was not the case. Furthermore, these same diseases of affluence should logically be in a period of decline as man gradually has biologically adapted to grains. Or in other words, the worst case of the diseases of affluence would have logically existed some 10,000 years ago when man first started eating grains rather than today.
Further, this very same academic paper contradicts this conclusion by saying that "CHD was reportedly rare in developed populations until the early 1900s."
So, what happen in the 1900s? I can tell you. Food science developed and accordingly a sudden surge in the widespread consumption of refined-grain junk food took place. So, if grains are to be blamed for this post 1900 phenomenon then we are clearly talking about refined grains rather than whole-grains. Of course, there are other possibilities too, such as global warming and modern stress.
Furthermore, this paper presents only an untested and unproven hypothesis. I have easily this hypothesis to be wrong.
As previously stated, the tomato has been in the European diet for less than 200 years. Yet, it is clearly one of the healthiest foods in the human diet. So, the notion that 10,000 years is not long enough for humans to adapt to grains is total nonsense.
Who says so? I do. http://naturalhealthperspective.com/food/whole-grains.html -- John Gohde, Achieving good Nutrition is an Art, NOT a Science!
The nutrition of eating a healthy diet is a biological factor of the mind-body connection. Now, weighing in at 18 web pages, the Nutrition of a Healthy Diet is with more documentation and sharper terminology than ever before. http://naturalhealthperspective.com/food/
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